The King James Bible – Part 1
Why I Believe the King James Bible is the Perfect Word of God
Intro Personal, How come I’ve never heard that, MChurch
“sound doctrine” 4 times, here are 3
2Timothy 4:1 I charge thee therefore before God, and the Lord Jesus Christ, who shall judge the quick and the dead at his appearing and his kingdom; 2 Preach the word; be instant in season, out of season; reprove, rebuke, exhort with all longsuffering and doctrine. 3 For the time will come (we are in that time) when they will not endure sound doctrine; but after their own lusts shall they heap to themselves teachers, having itching ears; 4 And they shall turn away their ears from the truth, and shall be turned unto fables.
Titus 1:9 Holding fast the faithful word as he hath been taught, that he may be able by sound doctrine both to exhort and to convince the gainsayers. 10 For there are many unruly and vain talkers and deceivers, specially they of the circumcision: 11 Whose mouths must be stopped, who subvert whole houses, teaching things which they ought not, for filthy lucre’s sake.
LAST ONE
Titus 2:1 But speak thou the things which become sound doctrine:
Now, this is a LETTER, written by Paul to Titus, his student/preacher
It is separated into chapters and verses for ease of use by humans but it is ONE SINGLE LETTER.
Look at the sentence right before Titus 2:1…
Titus 1:16 They profess that they know God; but in works they deny him, being abominable, and disobedient, and unto every good work reprobate.
This is how important it is to have SOUND DOCTRINE.
Have it, have salvation. Don’t have it, don’t have salvation (but don’t know it!).
I will now make my case for the KJV, It has 4 parts.
Part 1 – God
Part 2 – Logic
Part 3 – Changes
Part 4 – History
Part 1 – God
Romans 3:4 God forbid: yea, let God be true, but every man a liar;
Is God always true?
Does mankind always believe God? (Do they ever believe God??)
What is man’s responsibility in this? “Let” God be true!
You have a choice. Will you “LET” God be true?
2 Timothy 3:16‑17 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: 17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.
Do we have SCRIPTURE today? We either DO or we DON’T.
What is SCRIPTURE?
SCRIPTURE is “given by inspiration of God”. God gives it. Pen
SCRIPTURE is “profitable for doctrine”. EVERYTHING SCRIPTURE says about doctrine is profitable (can be believed & is correct). Everything.
SCRIPTURE is “profitable for reproof”. EVERYTHING SCRIPTURE says about reproof (charge for wrongdoing) is profitable.
SCRIPTURE is “profitable for correction”. EVERYTHING SCRIPTURE says about correction (fixing wrongdoing) is profitable.
SCRIPTURE is “profitable for instruction in righteousness”. EVERYTHING SCRIPTURE says about righteousness (doing right) is profitable and correct. Everything. All of it. No errors.
It has to be “PERFECT”. PERFECT. Without error.
If the man that reads it and follows it is going to be “PERFECT”, hence, without any error (that is the definition of perfect, no?) then what he is reading MUST be perfect – or else he cannot be “perfect”. Just one wrong thing and perfect goes out the window. What if he follows an error?
If something, anything, is NOT – ALL OF THOSE THINGS??????
Then it is NOT scripture. I can’t be, it doesn’t fit the definition.
Do you believe we have SCRIPTURE on this planet?
I do not believe there can be an “in-between” answer. Yes or No.
How can a man of God be perfect if his instruction book on how to be perfect is not perfect? Umm, he can’t.
Let’s meet the writer.
Deuteronomy 32:4 He is the Rock, his work is perfect: for all his ways are judgment: a God of truth and without iniquity, just and right is he.
Is God’s work always perfect? Of course it is. It says it is.
Is the Bible His work? Well, that depends on what you believe. I believe so.
If it is, how then can it ever NOT be perfect?
What happens to God’s perfection when man gets his hands on it? (The Fall in the Garden of Eden ruined a lot of stuff, huh?)
Psalms 19:7‑9 The law of the LORD is perfect, converting the soul (this is NOT a job for superman, but the PERFECT MAN): the testimony of the LORD is sure, (not 99%, 100% sure, which man NEVER is when the future is concerned – much less the past) making wise the simple. 8 The statutes of the LORD are right, rejoicing the heart: the commandment of the LORD is pure, (not like Dove soap 99 and 44/100 % pure, but 100% PURE, without defect, without error) enlightening the eyes. 9 The fear of the LORD is clean, enduring for ever: the judgments of the LORD are true and righteous altogether.
Where is his law? Testimony? Statutes? Commandments? Judgments?
Is this verse true? There is no in-between. Yes or No.
Psalms 119:160 Thy word is true from the beginning: and every one of thy righteous judgments endureth for ever.
“from/in the beginning”; coincidence?
Is it true from beginning to end? Yes or No. Believe this or not. I do.
Proverbs 30:5‑6 Every word of God is pure: he is a shield unto them that put their trust in him. 6 Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar.
Is each and every Word of God absolutely pure? Yes or no.
What if even one word is added to His? One single letter?? It becomes a lie.
Isaiah 40:8 The grass withereth, the flower fadeth: but the word of our God shall stand for ever.
Where does grass wither, on earth or in heaven?
Where do flowers fade, on earth or in heaven?
Now, obviously the Word of God shall stand in heaven forever, everything does! This verse is irrelevant and disconnected if the context suddenly switches to heaven when it is obviously intended to be on the earth.
Psalms 119:89‑90 For ever, O LORD, thy word is settled in heaven. 90 Thy faithfulness is unto all generations: thou hast established the earth, and it abideth.
Is the Word settled in heaven?
Is God faithful to all generations?
Are we a generation? Has He been faithful to us?
Would you count it faithful if He had broken His promise that as the ‘earth’ was established and abides that the Word of God was established and doesn’t abide?
The Word of God MUST abide on Earth or this is a lie.
Luke 4:4 And Jesus answered him, saying, It is written, That man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word of God.
What “alone” is the only way a man can live?
Do we have every word of God? If not, then how can we possibly live?
2 Timothy 3:15 And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.
Did Timothy have the scriptures? Did he have the originals?
Acts 17:11 These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the scriptures daily, whether those things were so.
What was the church searching daily? Is this the Godly responsibility of church members? What then are we supposed to search today?
Jul 25 2021
The King James Bible – Part 1
Downloadable Word document:
The King James Bible – Part 1
The King James Bible – Part 1
Why I Believe the King James Bible is the Perfect Word of God
Intro Personal, How come I’ve never heard that, MChurch
“sound doctrine” 4 times, here are 3
2Timothy 4:1 I charge thee therefore before God, and the Lord Jesus Christ, who shall judge the quick and the dead at his appearing and his kingdom; 2 Preach the word; be instant in season, out of season; reprove, rebuke, exhort with all longsuffering and doctrine. 3 For the time will come (we are in that time) when they will not endure sound doctrine; but after their own lusts shall they heap to themselves teachers, having itching ears; 4 And they shall turn away their ears from the truth, and shall be turned unto fables.
Titus 1:9 Holding fast the faithful word as he hath been taught, that he may be able by sound doctrine both to exhort and to convince the gainsayers. 10 For there are many unruly and vain talkers and deceivers, specially they of the circumcision: 11 Whose mouths must be stopped, who subvert whole houses, teaching things which they ought not, for filthy lucre’s sake.
LAST ONE
Titus 2:1 But speak thou the things which become sound doctrine:
Now, this is a LETTER, written by Paul to Titus, his student/preacher
It is separated into chapters and verses for ease of use by humans but it is ONE SINGLE LETTER.
Look at the sentence right before Titus 2:1…
Titus 1:16 They profess that they know God; but in works they deny him, being abominable, and disobedient, and unto every good work reprobate.
This is how important it is to have SOUND DOCTRINE.
Have it, have salvation. Don’t have it, don’t have salvation (but don’t know it!).
I will now make my case for the KJV, It has 4 parts.
Part 1 – God
Part 2 – Logic
Part 3 – Changes
Part 4 – History
Part 1 – God
Romans 3:4 God forbid: yea, let God be true, but every man a liar;
Is God always true?
Does mankind always believe God? (Do they ever believe God??)
What is man’s responsibility in this? “Let” God be true!
You have a choice. Will you “LET” God be true?
2 Timothy 3:16‑17 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: 17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.
Do we have SCRIPTURE today? We either DO or we DON’T.
What is SCRIPTURE?
SCRIPTURE is “given by inspiration of God”. God gives it. Pen
SCRIPTURE is “profitable for doctrine”. EVERYTHING SCRIPTURE says about doctrine is profitable (can be believed & is correct). Everything.
SCRIPTURE is “profitable for reproof”. EVERYTHING SCRIPTURE says about reproof (charge for wrongdoing) is profitable.
SCRIPTURE is “profitable for correction”. EVERYTHING SCRIPTURE says about correction (fixing wrongdoing) is profitable.
SCRIPTURE is “profitable for instruction in righteousness”. EVERYTHING SCRIPTURE says about righteousness (doing right) is profitable and correct. Everything. All of it. No errors.
It has to be “PERFECT”. PERFECT. Without error.
If the man that reads it and follows it is going to be “PERFECT”, hence, without any error (that is the definition of perfect, no?) then what he is reading MUST be perfect – or else he cannot be “perfect”. Just one wrong thing and perfect goes out the window. What if he follows an error?
If something, anything, is NOT – ALL OF THOSE THINGS??????
Then it is NOT scripture. I can’t be, it doesn’t fit the definition.
Do you believe we have SCRIPTURE on this planet?
I do not believe there can be an “in-between” answer. Yes or No.
How can a man of God be perfect if his instruction book on how to be perfect is not perfect? Umm, he can’t.
Let’s meet the writer.
Deuteronomy 32:4 He is the Rock, his work is perfect: for all his ways are judgment: a God of truth and without iniquity, just and right is he.
Is God’s work always perfect? Of course it is. It says it is.
Is the Bible His work? Well, that depends on what you believe. I believe so.
If it is, how then can it ever NOT be perfect?
What happens to God’s perfection when man gets his hands on it? (The Fall in the Garden of Eden ruined a lot of stuff, huh?)
Psalms 19:7‑9 The law of the LORD is perfect, converting the soul (this is NOT a job for superman, but the PERFECT MAN): the testimony of the LORD is sure, (not 99%, 100% sure, which man NEVER is when the future is concerned – much less the past) making wise the simple. 8 The statutes of the LORD are right, rejoicing the heart: the commandment of the LORD is pure, (not like Dove soap 99 and 44/100 % pure, but 100% PURE, without defect, without error) enlightening the eyes. 9 The fear of the LORD is clean, enduring for ever: the judgments of the LORD are true and righteous altogether.
Where is his law? Testimony? Statutes? Commandments? Judgments?
Is this verse true? There is no in-between. Yes or No.
Psalms 119:160 Thy word is true from the beginning: and every one of thy righteous judgments endureth for ever.
“from/in the beginning”; coincidence?
Is it true from beginning to end? Yes or No. Believe this or not. I do.
Proverbs 30:5‑6 Every word of God is pure: he is a shield unto them that put their trust in him. 6 Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar.
Is each and every Word of God absolutely pure? Yes or no.
What if even one word is added to His? One single letter?? It becomes a lie.
Isaiah 40:8 The grass withereth, the flower fadeth: but the word of our God shall stand for ever.
Where does grass wither, on earth or in heaven?
Where do flowers fade, on earth or in heaven?
Now, obviously the Word of God shall stand in heaven forever, everything does! This verse is irrelevant and disconnected if the context suddenly switches to heaven when it is obviously intended to be on the earth.
Psalms 119:89‑90 For ever, O LORD, thy word is settled in heaven. 90 Thy faithfulness is unto all generations: thou hast established the earth, and it abideth.
Is the Word settled in heaven?
Is God faithful to all generations?
Are we a generation? Has He been faithful to us?
Would you count it faithful if He had broken His promise that as the ‘earth’ was established and abides that the Word of God was established and doesn’t abide?
The Word of God MUST abide on Earth or this is a lie.
Luke 4:4 And Jesus answered him, saying, It is written, That man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word of God.
What “alone” is the only way a man can live?
Do we have every word of God? If not, then how can we possibly live?
2 Timothy 3:15 And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.
Did Timothy have the scriptures? Did he have the originals?
Acts 17:11 These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the scriptures daily, whether those things were so.
What was the church searching daily? Is this the Godly responsibility of church members? What then are we supposed to search today?
By Pastor • KJV Only, LHBC Core Beliefs • 0